This is the question an atheist asks and then goes on to say that the Bible contradicts Itself, using verses out of context as his proof. I would like to address this subject in this post. I have been writing a series of posts on claims by atheists that the Bible contradicts Itself. Upon the slightest bit of intellectual integrity one will find that the atheists are trying to latch on to the wind for their ridiculous claims, trying to disprove a God whom they claim does not exist. That very act proves that they do not have full proof that there is no God, just their desires (but that is for a different post).